I can't see how what happened can even be called a fumble. It moved through the air from 1 hand to the other, never hit the ground. Butler dislodged it but the runner got control of it again, then landed on the pylon. Calling it a fumble makes no sense. If a runner were in the open and at the goal line tossed it from 1 hand to the other it would still be a TD.
On game day it took me forever to even grok what the issue was.
I was like, he had possession, he ran for some time toward the pylon with the ball in possession.
Like you I was thinking "how is that a fumble," because the ball certainly isn't in the
other team's possession. However, evidently, you have to have possession when you cross the goal line.
So imagine this scenario:
Butler punches the ball lose, and instead of playing volleyball against himself, the runner fumbles it and it hits the ground and bounces out of bounds over the goalline. We both know the rule applies there.
Here's another scenario: Seferian-Jenkins, with nobody around him, spikes the ball on the 1, and it bounces out of the end-zone (back or side.) We both know he doesn't get
that touch down, even though the ball wasn't punched out. I
think that's also a touchback, because the ball didn't go out on the 1, for example - it went out of the end zone. Somebody check me on this, but it seems like the same basic rule.
What's "new" here is that the ball is bobbling when the runner crosses the goal line, i.e., nobody has possession but the ball never hits the ground. What makes it a slam dunk (logically, although the rule might not be logical,) is that our guy punched it out.
Where I'm
still confused (and I have 4 more pages to read), is what would be the call if he bobbled it on his own, after clearly having possession... still a touchback? I think so, but can somebody confirm?
Anybody? Bueller?