For one, your question was not straight forward. It was a loaded question. That you don't understand how it was a loaded question is not my issue. In the definition itself, should you chose to have read it (doubtful based upon your insistance here), it states, clearly: "Aside from being a logical fallacy, such questions may be used as a rhetorical tool: the question attempts to limit direct replies to be those that serve the questioner's agenda". In this instance, you directly admitted that a few posts ago. In other words, I can ask you to go look up the amount of instances in which a team up by three scores and barely in their opponent's territory has gone for it and accomplish the same thing since there is no viable way to look up the information requested and, if you tried, you'd be limited to replies that only served my stance.
So your explanation of how it is a loaded question is to pick out one attribute (not a sufficient definition) from wikipedia that could be applied to any question ever asked in a disagreement. Seriously just stop. This is getting silly. I didn't ask you a loaded question. I asked you to assign a probability based on what you think is going to happen. When you think something is the best course of action you are innately assigning a probability to it. I am asking you for that number.
You have stated that you think giving the ball back to Manning at midfield down 17 with 8 minutes to go is more risky than giving it to him on the 20 yard line. I am simply asking you, in a very standard way to attempt to quantify how much more risky you think it is. I didn't ask for a definitive number, or past data points, or specific examples. I asked for what % of the time YOUT THINK those 20 yards are the difference between winning and losing, and what % of the time YOU THINK Manning wins the game from the 20 yard line in that situation.
If you can't or won't do this you have no business making or criticizing decisions of other because that is how decisions are made. You are being what now seems like deliberately evasive and obtuse in answering this question because I think you know that your assertion that the smart move is to "always" try to pin him back isn't based on any coherent logic. It's staggering just how much some people struggle with this.
For another, you've clearly never heard of the terms mean, median, and mode. Those are three ways, for starters, you can take the amount of instances that something happened, compare it with the amount of instances it was successful, and find a percentage. But what do I know? I'm just spewing nonense.
So you just decided to throw in completely superfluous pieces of 8th grade information to make it seem like you have a grasp on statistics? What other possible reason is there for this little blurb. "yeah well, have you ever heard of regression to the mean?!?!? pshaww boom in yo face!" Big time lol @ you here.
I just showed you that I very clearly didn't misuse the term. Again, here is your question:
I'll ask again, what % of the time do you think an extra 20 yards is the difference between winning and losing against Peyton Manning when up 17 with 8+ minutes to go?
I'll reiterate before you keep going with this why this is not a loaded question before you spew forth more silliness: There are no assumptions in this question. The fact that you haven't seen a question phrased like this is simply because you have never thought about things in this way, as many people haven't, because you haven't learned to think analytically. This is a 100% standard question concerning the presumed probability of an event in game theory.
So here we go to demonstrate that you still have no clue what's going on and are just arguing from ignorance....
So here is what I have to peel through the game logs, historical contests between the two teams, Google, NFL, and ESPN.com for...
1. Games played against Manning.
2. Times that we punted and gave him an extra 20+ yards of field to navigate.
a) Times that we did this when up three scores.
b) Times that we did this when up three scores with 8+ minutes left to go.
c) How many times did we win when this happened?
d) How many times did we lose when this happened?
3. Formulate percentage based on the results.
Again, if you can't see how this isn't a loaded question, then I can't help you. I can tell you that off the top of my head, I can think of a couple of instances, the last of which came when Manning fired a pick to James Sanders in 2010. But the score was closer than three scores... which sort of plays into my point.
This is so mindbogglingly dumb I don't even know where to begin. For starters, as explained above you didn't even understand the question. What else are you using to formulate your opinion on the likelihood of manning winning the game fromt he 20? And you ignored the most significant numbers in determining this; the base rate. Instead what you've written here is basically "never happened before derp de derp." The fact that in your mind the presumed probability is limited to a universe of these numbers is just insanely idiotic, and all it really shows is that instead of going and actually thinking about this you are just arguing for the sake of arguing.
What is this even supposed to mean? facepalm.jpg
Standard questions net standard results when an explanation is searched for. A standard question is something like: What is the fourth down conversion rate for the 2011/2010/2009 New England Patriots? Or, how many times has going for it when having a lead against Peyton Manning netted a win for the Patriots? Your's was not standard. It was loaded. As such, it has no place in a debate no matter how much you want it to. But if it makes you feel better, than keep on trucking.
I've already explained why this is completely lol, so I'll just reiterate, what do you think the flawed assumptions are in my question? I won't hold my breath.
The Patriots were running out of time, out of downs, and needed a field goal to win in the Cardinals game. A field goal was the ONLY thing that made sense there so the comparison sucks, as I'm sure you already know. In the Broncos game, the Patriots were up multiple scores, had under ten minutes on the clock, were on Denver's 48, and had the momentum. Going for it with a 47% probability that you won't convert and, thus, give the Broncos the momentum based on the previous three seasons did not make sense.
NO. Your logic was that the fumble occurred only because of the decision to go for it. That's what you said. I showed you how that is completely idiotic. My example was in a game where the field goal was obviously the correct choice but according to your previous results-oriented argument, it must have been incorrect because he missed. You also go on later in the post and your previous one to make the same asinine argument that because Brady fumbled Belichick must have not considered the possibility that he would (this somehow makes sense in your mind). You've proven totally myopic to this point thoug so I don't expect you to do anything other than continue to shift the goalposts wrt this point.