Not to get too involved in your pissing match here <g>, but let's think of a very real situation. A pass over the middle sails high and a receiver leaps to catch it right at his own 45 yard line. He leaves his feet, grabs the ball, but on his way down, the defender grabs him and shoves him back 3 yards, then the receiver's feet hit the ground and he falls down for a tackle. Where do you spot the ball? The 45 or the 42? This is not a complicated question, and this kind of thing happens every week in the NFL.
Now ask yourself the same question but imagine the receiver bobbles the ball midair. Where do you mark it? Not at the 45. He may have first touched it there, but that point ceases to exist as his forward progress because he doesn't have control.
You don't get possession when you meet just one of the factors laid out, you have to meet all of them, and like the rule says, if there is any doubt, it is NOT considered a possession.
You mark forward progress at the point the receiver has clear, full control of the football and has both feet or another part of his body clearly on the ground.
When Faulk bobbled the ball on the initial touch, he opened himself up to having the ref spot the ball where the ref decides he has full control. So again, if he catches it clean, it's going to be called a first. When he juggles it, now the ref has to try and make a judgement call on when he finally has complete control over it, and the refs unfortunately don't get to watch replays on the field unless it's challenged, which it wasn't.
Like I said, I think it was a 1st too, but not by much, and I can understand how the ref could make the mistake. It's not a huge botched call. It's a borderline call that
probably went the wrong way, and because of the way they'd wasted their timeouts, the Pats had no chance to get it reviewed.
Now, to the other question of whether Faulk got the first down...I know you guys agree that he did. Look at that NFL video you linked to...stop it at 0:58. Faulk has already juggled it and has secured it at this point. His left foot is *barely* in front of the 30, but every other part of him, including the ball, is at or beyond the 30. In fact, he made the first down by a good half-yard easy. You know this because the other ref came in from the middle of the field to mark the spot, and he went close to the 31. Now, what's interesting is that of the two officials - the guy in the middle and the guy along the sideline - the only one that can clearly see when the ball is secured is the guy in the *middle*. So why didn't they confer to get the call right? Why did the sideline guy, *who can't even see when the ball is secured*, make the call?
That makes no sense at all. The more I see the replay, the more it becomes clear that not only did Faulk make it...he made it by plenty.
Again, I agree that it probably WAS a first down, but look at 0:58 like you said. Remember, it doesn't matter where his outstretched right leg is, it matters where the ball is. Logically, the ball is going to be near the center of his body. Now look down at the yellow line (which by the way is technically not official). Remember, the 30 isn't the first down, it's just past the 30. So if the ball is at the 30, it's the right call. Now it looks to me like the ball is just, JUST, at that yellow line. Assuming that is, that both his feet are down.
Again, I agree that is probably was just barely a first down, but how you guys can say it was clear cut and that he got it by a lot is beyond me.