I don't think you understand the circumstances here. So riddle me this: How exactly are you going to prove in a court of law that solicitation occurred when both the john and the masseuse claim nothing sexual happened, it was just a massage?
Paying for a massage is legal, so merely proving that money exchanged hands doesn't get you your conviction. If the act took place behind closed doors and only 2 people were in the room and both those people say nothing sexual took place, you have a very weak case.