Chris Stevenson
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i'm just citing the rulebook, which makes a distinction between control and possession.
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Would you please post what you're reading?
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CLICK HERE to Register for a free account and login for a smoother ad-free experience. It's easy, and only takes a few moments.i'm just citing the rulebook, which makes a distinction between control and possession.
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Also, even if this "pin to the hip" was enough to actually be possession, that still doesn't stop it from being a fumble.
The ball was clearly loose. Then, while falling down, Lewis put his hand on the ball with the ball between his hand and his hip. Let's be generous and say that "pin" actually met the standard of having possession. Because Lewis was falling down at that point he still has to maintain possession to and through the ground. As he hit the ground, Jack took it away from him. Lewis thus did not survive the ground and so could not be ruled down by contact. It's a validly recovered fumble by Jack.
I will more than admit that I don't understand the rulebook enough to be able to parse this, and I assume everyone who is screaming that it can only be viewed as a fumble must be right, but this is where I get confused. Let's say the ball pinned to his hip was possession and he falls to the ground and still has it but then Jack takes it from him, why is that a fumble? He survived the ground but once on the ground he didn't survive someone knocking it out of his hands. Why wouldn't that be down by contact since the knocking it out came after?
Let's say the ball pinned to his hip was possession and he falls to the ground and still has it but then Jack takes it from him, why is that a fumble? He survived the ground but once on the ground he didn't survive someone knocking it out of his hands. Why wouldn't that be down by contact since the knocking it out came after him hitting the ground?
Video is even more clear. He was hit by the second Jaguar while on the ground. This was not a fumble
i already have several times in this thread. but here it is again:Would you please post what you're reading?
I will more than admit that I don't understand the rulebook enough to be able to parse this, and I assume everyone who is screaming that it can only be viewed as a fumble must be right, but this is where I get confused:
Let's say the ball pinned to his hip was possession and he falls to the ground and still has it but then Jack takes it from him, why is that a fumble? He survived the ground but once on the ground he didn't survive someone knocking it out of his hands. Why wouldn't that be down by contact since the knocking it out came after him hitting the ground?
Surviving the ground is more than just having the ball in control the moment you hit the ground. Think of pass completions (which is where you see the surviving the ground rule in effect much more often). If a receiver going to ground has firm control of the ball, but the ball is knocked loose the moment he hits the ground, that's an incomplete pass. He has to maintain control for an (admittedly nebulous) amount of time after hitting the ground. Same thing here, except failure to survive the ground means the ball is still loose (because the original loose ball was a fumble, not a forward pass).
That's because the ball was being jostled all the way to the ground before he showed possession for a score, and he landed out of bounds without control, which means Jenkins has to show he has it all the way through to score. Otherwise, it is a touchback because he WAS OUT OF BOUNDS WITH A JOSTLING BALL. Correct call and not applicable to Lewis maintaining possession, running 15 yards, ball jostled, with clear re-possession.
The point of contention some are having a hard time grasping is that before his knee hit the ground he lost possession of the ball, while trying to repossess the ball he has to "survive the ground" . Which the refs and replay deemed he did not. (correctly IMO)
I'm having a hard time grasping it, too, because I'm not really sure what surviving the ground means any more. I thought he had once his knee was down, but apparently that's not enough anymore.
i already have several times in this thread. but here it is again:
If Lewis was in possession of the ball running down the field with it "pinned to his hip" if he was contacted and his knee hit the ground the play is over the moment his knee hits the ground.
The point of contention some are having a hard time grasping is that before his knee hit the ground he lost possession of the ball, while trying to repossess the ball he has to "survive the ground" . Which the refs and replay deemed he did not. (correctly IMO)
He had already lost possession by the time his knee hit the ground, and never, at any point, regained it.
Not sure what's confusing about that.
Sure it is. Deleting one group's comments, while not the belligerents' comments, shows favoritism and is arbitrary, just like Mussolini, Hitler or Stalin's logic.
Fascism is fascism.
It did.Here is the problem:
The ball never came loose.
There was never a gap between his hand, the ball and his body.
Show me where the ball came loose for this rule to apply. Tell us where in the video replay, where this happens:
Ha ha... I'm one of the crazies who thinks you can make a case for "pinned to the leg" as possession (having lived through the Tyree catch).
As I said, I really don't know what possession means any more.
I'm having a hard time grasping it, too, because I'm not really sure what surviving the ground means any more. I thought he had once his knee was down, but apparently that's not enough anymore.
How do you not know?
Tyree had the ball pinned to his helmet, and survived the ground with possession.
Dion Lewis had the ball knocked out of his arm, and never re-gained possession.
I don't see how the two are analogous in any way.
Here is the problem:
The ball never came loose. There was never a gap between his hand, the ball and his body.
Show me where the ball came loose for this rule to apply. Tell us where in the video replay, where this happens:
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