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A franchise tag question

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ctpatsfan77

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This isn't specific to the Pats, but obviously relevant.

Let's say, for the sake of argument, that the Pats use the franchise tag this spring. The rules say that if a team makes an offer the Pats are unwilling/unable to match, that team has to cough up two first-round draft picks.

Here's my question: since the Colts don't have a first-round pick in 2008, does that mean they are shut out of the franchise "market," or would they simply have to give up their first-rounders in 2009 and 2010?
 
oww, very good and interesting question...i imagine the answer to it however is incredibly hard to find, and i would think its the latter one of the two u mentioned
 
First off, it seldom happens that a team signs a franchise player to a tender for the simple reason few players are worth it. Franchise QB maybe, which is why Manning had the exclusive tag slapped on him briefly in 2004 - so nobody could even talk to him.

The Colts would have to have the compensation in hand, but that could be engineered via other trades that led to them acquiring a 1st. However in most instances teams who want a franchise player simply communicate their interest in doing a long term deal at his terms to the player (if only you weren't tagged...) and wait for him to shoot his way out of town via trade for much less than 2 1st rounders.

However, keep in mind Polian's aversion to FA signings. He didn't like doing them before Simon took his money and went home, and he traded a 2nd rounder for Booger who is now sitting at home, not to mention his money FA kicker has had a little case of the yips.
 
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This isn't specific to the Pats, but obviously relevant.

Let's say, for the sake of argument, that the Pats use the franchise tag this spring. The rules say that if a team makes an offer the Pats are unwilling/unable to match, that team has to cough up two first-round draft picks.

Here's my question: since the Colts don't have a first-round pick in 2008, does that mean they are shut out of the franchise "market," or would they simply have to give up their first-rounders in 2009 and 2010?
They would have to trade to get back their original first rounder, or they would have to trade with another team for a first rounder that is better than their original one.

This happened with the Redskins a few years ago, though it was a fifth rounder, not a first.
 
This isn't specific to the Pats, but obviously relevant.

Let's say, for the sake of argument, that the Pats use the franchise tag this spring. The rules say that if a team makes an offer the Pats are unwilling/unable to match, that team has to cough up two first-round draft picks.

Here's my question: since the Colts don't have a first-round pick in 2008, does that mean they are shut out of the franchise "market," or would they simply have to give up their first-rounders in 2009 and 2010?

It depends on when they made their offer to the franchise player. If it is before the 2008 draft, then I am pretty sure that they would need to have a 1st round pick in order to make the offer like MLR and spacecrime already said. If it is after the 2008 draft, they would simply have to give up their first-rounders in 2009 and 2010.
 
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