Historical Question (Slightly OT)

[Michigan Dave]

Why did the 1972 Dolphins play the AFC title game AT Pittsburgh?

Was there no HFA back then? How did they determine where the game would be played? I was watching the America's Game on the 72 Dolphins last night, and they showed the playoffs. Miami winning, and then Pittsburgh beating Oakland (in Pittsburgh) to setup the AFCCG. Pittsburgh was not undefeated as Miami was, so why was the game in Pittsburgh?

Pardon my ignorance, I was not born until 1980.

 

[tedster822]

Dave,

In 1972, HFA rotated between divisions. Sometime in the 70's(not sure which year), it switched to being based on record.

ted

 

[tedster822]

Dave,

FYI...it switched in 1975.

http://www.nfl.com/history/chronology/1971-1980

Below is from the 1975 section.

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The divisional winners with the highest won-loss percentage were made the home team for the divisional playoffs, and the surviving winners with the highest percentage made home teams for the championship games, June 26.

____

ted

 

[Michigan Dave]

Dave,

FYI...it switched in 1975.

http://www.nfl.com/history/chronology/1971-1980

Below is from the 1975 section.

____

The divisional winners with the highest won-loss percentage were made the home team for the divisional playoffs, and the surviving winners with the highest percentage made home teams for the championship games, June 26.

____

ted

Thanks, Ted. I figured there was some sort of rotation, but was baffled as to how it would work, since unlike the SB (neutral site), the CG was at the home of a participant, and that was decided only a week in advance.