Ball 1?

[Brady6]

I finally began to read the Wells report and didn't get passed the PSI readings before realizing how idiotic and blind this entire situation is.

According to the report pregame the Colts target was around 13.1 PSI so for arguments sake let's say their ball 1 was 13.1 PSI, when measured after the game it was 12.35 PSI a variance of 0.75 PSI.

According to the report pregame the Patriots target was 12.5 PSI and when measured after the game it was 11.8 PSI a variance of 0.70 PSI.

Am I missing something? Clearly both teams footballs deflated from their original PSIs after being used in game action. In the case of ball 1 the Colts ball was actually more deflated from its starting point.

 

[robbomango]

I'm still trying to figure out why they decided to go with the lower numbers, they give no reasonable explanation other than just because that's what they think is better. If Prioleau's are used then there really is no need for the rest of the report lol.

"Hey Ted what if we use Prioleau's numbers?"
"That would be a loss of hundreds of hours millions of dollars by the firm, no bad idea"

It also suggests the refs switched gauges when measuring the Colts balls. Why not ask the refs if they switched? or did they forget that as well...

It looks more like Blakeman can't operate a simple gauge...