I'm saying that the bolded portion of your statement was seemingly confusing revenue with profit.
OK, let me explain it to you.
I said that what the owners do with their 40% of the revenue should not have anything to do with the negotiations.
DEFINITON: What they do with their 40% = how they manage the revenue they retain, ie what they spend. That results in the profit.
Revenue is 100,000.
40/60 split is 40,000 to owners.
"What they do with their 40%" means their expense.
The result is profit.
I could see how you may not connect the description of profit as what you do with your revenue, but have no clue how you could consider that the same thing as revenue.
In any event, the question remains, why would the level of profit the teams are able to realize from their share of the revenue be part o the negotiations when the formula has always been revenue and no one is suggesting otherwise?
The simple, obvious answer is that the owners are claiming that rising expenses are eating into their profits. In other words, it's the owners bringing the owners' expenses into the equation.
I do not understand why that matters.
What would showing the books solve? Do you expect they will show declining expenses? If so, who cares, because that is not part of the formula.
I am struggling to understand your overall point here.
Are you saying that because the owners cited expenses as one of their motivations to require a bigger share of revenue that they must prove their expenses or retract their business decision that the current split is unacceptable to them?