NO HE DID NOT.
Because on the plays that determined the outcome of that game Elway came through and Favre did not.
When yuo say 'by any measure' you are showing me that you have no clue how football games are won or lost.
Remember Elway running for the first down? That was one of the game deciding plays. The fact that Favre threw it twice as much and put up numbers is NOT THE MEASURE OF WINNING FOOTBALL GAMES.
The Packers were 5/14 on 3rd down, and 0/1 on 4th down.
This happened in that game:
>>>Tyrone Braxton intercepted Favre two plays later, and John Elway scored on a third-and-goal play to begin the second quarter. Steve Atwater forced Favre to fumble three plays later, and Neil Smith recovered at the Packers' 33. Jason Elam converted a 51-yard field goal, the second longest in Super Bowl history, to give the Broncos a 17-7 lead with 12:21 left in the half.<<<
And here is the clincher.
The game was tied in the 4th quarter.
Favre got 3 posesions (Denver scored before the last one to go up 7)
1st possession. (starting at the GB 48)1 FD, then inc pass on 1st and 10 and 3rd and 8.
2nd possession, 3 and out
3rd possession. inc passes on 2nd and 6, 3rd and 6, 4th and 6, game over.
Yet, because Denver was ahead, and GB threw twice as often, the fact that Favre had essentially 2x the attempt, completes and yards, you conclude "BY ANY MEASURE" he played better??
By WHAT measure?
When the game was tied in the 4th quarter he FAILED 3 times.
He had 2 turnovers to 1.
He was poor on 3rd down.
The game was in his hands to win, and he failed.
But because he compiled more stats, by throwing MORE OFTEN BUT NOT BETTER, you think 'by any measure' he was better? How about the measure of getting his team into the end zone when it was 24-24 in the 4th quarter?
How about by the measure of converting ANY 3rd downs on the 3 most important drives of the game?
I see your dilemma.
You think the best guy at something is the guy who did it the most.