cloud34

...and he didn't report, how did they resolve that? That's the only case I can remember that resembles the Seymour case....but I can't remember how that one ended up?

DaBruinz

That case is actually nothing like this case... There were a whole set of different circumstances involved.

MoLewisrocks

TO's agent had screwed up and failed to file some paperwork that had he filed it would have made TO a FA and therefore untradeable. So the league voided his trade and then brokered a trade that was agreeable to TO (for a while...) as a compromise and everyone hugged and made up.

mayoclinic

Exactly. The issue in that case was that Owen's agent missed the 49ers' deadline to void the remaining years on his contract and make him a FA. Owens, believing he was a FA, negotiated with the Eagles. The 49ers, believing they still owned his rights, traded him to the Ravens. The NFLPA filed a grievance on Owens' behalf disputing the actual deadline and claiming that Owens should have been a FA. The league intervened and brokered a deal in which Baltimore got back it's 2nd round pick and SF got some lesser compensation from Philly.

This is totally different. No question that the Pats' owned Seymours rights at the time of the trade.

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