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Aren't Catholics Christians, too?


As to the earliest Christians, we do not know for certain. We do know that the surviving Christianity is Pauline Christianity; as to what came before, you have to interpret to say the Pauline tradition dominated, and you have to interpret to say definitively that they did not. What we know is that the Paulines won.

PFnV

I don't know very much about this stuff, but something makes sense to me. Christians are followers of Christ. Many Christians agree about the importance or even authority of the Bible. If we want to know when the earliest Christians came on the scene, why don't we read the Bible?

Acts 11:26
And when he had found him, he brought him unto Antioch. And it came to pass, that a whole year they assembled themselves with the church, and taught much people. And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch.

I am not sure if it can be refuted (I have tried) that the use of this word was the first time it ever showed up in written history. The Bible (whether we believe Christianity or not) is a history book.

Most believe that the book of Acts was penned by a guy named Dr. Luke aroud 60AD. The events in Acts 11 seem to take place within a few years of Jesus death.

A Biblical conclusion would seem that the first Christians were the disciples of Jesus within a few years of his death. There is no church name or denomination.
 
Thesmee,

Simple answer? I don't know.

Received wisdom (though received from respected "New Testament" scholars)?

Paul understood that Christianity needed to be preached to the gentiles, and Peter thought Christianity was basically a form of Judaism. Gross oversimplification, from "received wisdom," some years ago. But I think Paul's works bear out the distinction.

Real answer: IF you buy that certain "sayings" materials could not be excised from popular memory, then the "sayings" material from the gospels looks much more trustworthy than the editorial addititions. (For instance, he did thus and such that this prophecy would be fulfilled -- well, Jesus didn't say that. A writer of a gospel said that.)

I think during Peter's time the popular imagination had a broad idea of what Jesus preached, and one or another narrative that explained the meaning of Jesus' passion.

In Paul's time, gospels were written which set down the meaning of Jesus' death. This eventually overshadowed Jesus' meaning in life. Remember, on the day Peter died, the Temple was still standing; the crisis that was to rend Judaism had not fully hit. Once the Temple was destroyed (c. 67 CE, if memory serves,) the meaning of Jesus' death can become something very different (i.e., "replacement theology.")

I personally think Jesus thought he was speaking primarily if not exclusively to Jews, though he was a forward-looking and expansive thinker. I further think he hand-picked Peter to found and lead the church. I don't think he thought that, for instance, Christianity would do away with circumcision and kashruth (remember "every jot, every iota..."?)

I don't really think I have a guess as to whether Peter was waiting for Jesus' return, but certainly in most Paulline documents the return is very important.

Again, these are the guesses of an outsider, based on a good deal of study from the point of view of "best guesses" rather than faith. First and foremost, this is the point of view of a non-believer in the Christian bible.

If you don't believe, you look first at the history, and you are most concerned with the actual personages, and the schools of thought of the times, as best you can make them out. If you do believe, these are less important, and can be reconstructed as necessary to fit the belief system. You trumpet the certainty of the bible as received and do not entertain historical questions, which, after all, are not the point of the book. But if the book is not the point of view of the man (Jesus), you do it all in vain.

I only have questions, not answers, and I have them of my own faith as well. Life in God's service, in my world, is a process of asking and answering the questions, not a process of loudly proclaiming the answers regardless of the dictates of history.

If they come easy, or if they come hard, may your answers and your questions fulfil you!

PFnV
Then an angel sends Peter to a Roman in Acts 10 who is not by blood a Jew (Gentile). Peter goes and the results were a convert to Peter's teaching. Then Peter has to go to the church in Jerusalem to defend his actions. So it is incorrect to say Peter focussed on the Jews.
 
Predator, I would argue your proof that Peter focused on gentiles (as Paul did,) on the following counts:

1) A single conversion among gentiles is not the same thing as a focus on the conversion of gentiles; therefore, a single conversion of a gentile does not prove Peter to be concerned with converting gentiles vis a vis converting Jews. This is if we take the bible as a history book, pure and simple, as you suggested in your penultimate post.

2) We can not only accept the bible on face value. It is the history as written, edited, and selected by those who survived to create the organized early Christian church. For example, one account of the "Great Commission" from the resurrection in Matthew, is missing from older extent copies of the Christian bible. This sort of thing does not alter the fact that Christianity is what it is today; it only points to the historical nature of text redaction.

Therefore, were it in the interests of the early church to portray Peter's concern with conversion of gentiles, we would expect the early church to select such a story for inclusion.

This neither confirms nor denies the account in Christian scripture; it simply notes that the Christian scripture, as written and compiled by the early church, can not be trusted without question as an objective authority on matters germane to that church.

In other words, any sacred writings of a religion are written and collected in historical times and places, not in vacuums. Scripture can tell us what the faith is supposed to embrace, according to he who records the scripture. It can not tell us, unequivocally and in a vacuum, the historical truth.

As to Acts, the traditional view is that Paul's friend named Luke wrote Acts; Many feel this was not the case, and that it was written later. I think I ascribed Acts to Paul, and if so, I do stand corrected. Luke's authorship is not, however, an uncontested fact either.

What is well known is that Acts falls squarely into Pauline Christianity.

Sources commenting on early Christianity, who view the early church in many ways, can be examined here (among other places):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_Church

As always in the case of religion, this Wikipedia page's neutrality is questioned.

A final note -- those who claim there was a section of Judaizers in the Jerusalem church point to James the Just as the wellspring of that point of view. What we do know is that Paul was "apostle to the Gentiles," and Peter was concerned with the Jerusalem church; whether Peter believed in the emerging Pauline "mainstream" is uncertain.

Anyway, as I always say, I am an interested outsider, so please take all my commentary in that spirit. I have no "dog in this fight," but I do have an avid interest in truth in general (not to be confused with a corner on it.)

PFnV
 
Predator, by the way, your common-sense thought that "Christians are followers of Christ" is exactly right, as far as I am concerned... the depiction of one group or another as "not real christians" is divisive, and (were I Christian,) I would consider it incredibly hurtful, not to mention hypocritical, on the part of the "real" Christian who so judges me.

Of course, those who use the "real" Christian rubric can ground their actions in early church actions and teachings against heresy.

Based on the quotes of Jesus himself, those who believe in him are all believers -- later to be called Christians.

PFnV
 
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Predator, I would argue your proof that Peter focused on gentiles (as Paul did,) on the following counts:

1) A single conversion among gentiles is not the same thing as a focus on the conversion of gentiles; therefore, a single conversion of a gentile does not prove Peter to be concerned with converting gentiles vis a vis converting Jews. This is if we take the bible as a history book, pure and simple, as you suggested in your penultimate post.

2) We can not only accept the bible on face value. It is the history as written, edited, and selected by those who survived to create the organized early Christian church. For example, one account of the "Great Commission" from the resurrection in Matthew, is missing from older extent copies of the Christian bible. This sort of thing does not alter the fact that Christianity is what it is today; it only points to the historical nature of text redaction.

Therefore, were it in the interests of the early church to portray Peter's concern with conversion of gentiles, we would expect the early church to select such a story for inclusion.

This neither confirms nor denies the account in Christian scripture; it simply notes that the Christian scripture, as written and compiled by the early church, can not be trusted without question as an objective authority on matters germane to that church.

In other words, any sacred writings of a religion are written and collected in historical times and places, not in vacuums. Scripture can tell us what the faith is supposed to embrace, according to he who records the scripture. It can not tell us, unequivocally and in a vacuum, the historical truth.

As to Acts, the traditional view is that Paul's friend named Luke wrote Acts; Many feel this was not the case, and that it was written later. I think I ascribed Acts to Paul, and if so, I do stand corrected. Luke's authorship is not, however, an uncontested fact either.

What is well known is that Acts falls squarely into Pauline Christianity.

Sources commenting on early Christianity, who view the early church in many ways, can be examined here (among other places):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Early_Church

As always in the case of religion, this Wikipedia page's neutrality is questioned.

A final note -- those who claim there was a section of Judaizers in the Jerusalem church point to James the Just as the wellspring of that point of view. What we do know is that Paul was "apostle to the Gentiles," and Peter was concerned with the Jerusalem church; whether Peter believed in the emerging Pauline "mainstream" is uncertain.

Anyway, as I always say, I am an interested outsider, so please take all my commentary in that spirit. I have no "dog in this fight," but I do have an avid interest in truth in general (not to be confused with a corner on it.)

PFnV

TY PFVA for the responses but I do need to point out a few things that don't make sense about them. I certainly do not view your reply as hostile. No matter who we are, we need to learn and grow.

1. I am not sure if you read the part of Acts that I quoted, but its seems like you have not.:( If you read the part you would see that one single person was not converted. In fact it was Cornelius and all those who heard Peter. That would have at least been the Romans family, some servants, and possibly friends who came to see Peter. This is not the emphasis of Acts 10 the way I read it. In fact verses 34-48 Peter actually opens up a gateway for his mesage to be be brought to the Gentile nation. These are Peter's words. Again, I am not a scholar, but I just read what that it said. In chapter 11 some Jews have a cow about Peter proclaiming the message to the Gentile nation. If your theory were true, then why did the Jews have a fit? One person would not have been an issue because the Jews has many proselytes.

2. I actually agree that the Bible cannot be accepted on face value because it must be a matter of ones faith. I believe you are very incorrect claiming that part of Matthew's great commission is missing. Could you please provide the textual varient codes from the manuscripts that have the missing parts? What we can do is dig up that manuscript information and see how or why it is missing. What Koine Greek text are you using to make this claim and who is the editor?

3. The majority of textual critics agree that Luke penned Acts. The reason it was not Paul? Paul is not a doctor. In the Gospel of Luke the author uses amazing medical terms and has a totally unique writing style. Just like any author has his own style Luke has his. His education level, grammar, and vocabulary was very different than Paul. The Gospel of Luke is a dead on match with the book of Acts. The similarities force the writer to be the same.

4. As far as the accusations against someone named James the Just are totally unfounded. James, the half brother of Jesus was an elder in Jerusalem. He was also the author of the New Testament book of James. All one needs to do is read that book to see that such a claim is invalid.

Thanks for the conversation. I learned a lot too.
 
1. I am not sure if you read the part of Acts that I quoted, but its seems like you have not.:( If you read the part you would see that one single person was not converted. In fact it was Cornelius and all those who heard Peter. That would have at least been the Romans family, some servants, and possibly friends who came to see Peter. This is not the emphasis of Acts 10 the way I read it. In fact verses 34-48 Peter actually opens up a gateway for his mesage to be be brought to the Gentile nation. These are Peter's words. Again, I am not a scholar, but I just read what that it said. In chapter 11 some Jews have a cow about Peter proclaiming the message to the Gentile nation. If your theory were true, then why did the Jews have a fit? One person would not have been an issue because the Jews has many proselytes.

2. I actually agree that the Bible cannot be accepted on face value because it must be a matter of ones faith. I believe you are very incorrect claiming that part of Matthew's great commission is missing. Could you please provide the textual varient codes from the manuscripts that have the missing parts? What we can do is dig up that manuscript information and see how or why it is missing. What Koine Greek text are you using to make this claim and who is the editor?

3. The majority of textual critics agree that Luke penned Acts. The reason it was not Paul? Paul is not a doctor. In the Gospel of Luke the author uses amazing medical terms and has a totally unique writing style. Just like any author has his own style Luke has his. His education level, grammar, and vocabulary was very different than Paul. The Gospel of Luke is a dead on match with the book of Acts. The similarities force the writer to be the same.

4. As far as the accusations against someone named James the Just are totally unfounded. James, the half brother of Jesus was an elder in Jerusalem. He was also the author of the New Testament book of James. All one needs to do is read that book to see that such a claim is invalid.

Thanks for the conversation. I learned a lot too.

Predator, the learning is mutual. I basically studied the gospels way more closely than Acts, and you are correct, I read more about Acts than of it, both prior to and after your post. But of course, I'll hang on to a vestige of a point regarding Peter. I don't think of this as a personality based schism, rather more a dearth of knowledge about whether there was an uncontested early Christian mainstream. "On this rock [Peter]," Jesus will build his church; yet it is Paul who seems to establish the Christian system of belief. But one point at a time...

1) Conceded, again without reading, that the story says it is a whole family of gentiles. I will accept for the sake of argument, that for the believer, the story establishes that Peter's viewpoint came around to be the equivalent of Paul's, to wit, that the Christian message should be equally offered to and established for all, regardless of origin. There's also no real reason to believe Peter opposed this decision, since during the lifetimes of Peter and Paul, Peter was at least supposed to have the last word, and had Peter actively opposed this decision, we would know it.

Although the story may or may not be embellishment, I do not say that Peter could not conceive of gentiles converting. I do think he left it primarily to Paul, and given these two items of information, I could well imagine that propping up Peter's being "on board", especially in light of Paul's wrath against "Judaizers" in Galatians, was important by the time of Acts, which again, is dated anywhere from 80-200 ce (with most scholars siding with 80.) I think the letters are the earliest bits we have, at least the ones that have a consensus on Pauline authorship (such as Galatians.) More importantly, Acts may come after the decisions made at Javneh (Jamnia,) possibly at a "Council of Jamnia," which essentially declared Christianity un-Jewish, thereby making Peter's putative fondness for converting gentiles much more necessary. I also checked Peter's dates, and only then realized that at least according to tradition, Paul never attained church primacy. The post was Peter's until both died, by some accounts on the same day.

So I'll drop the use of Peter to talk about the early church, and add a mea culpa. He was in charge, yet Acts lurches over from Peter to Paul halfway through; We have the story you cite, but we also have Paul as the key figure who preaches against Judaizing within Christianity.

Paul refers to himself specifically as an apostle to the gentiles:

Romans 11:13 (New American Standard Bible, Copyright © 1960, 1962, 1963, 1968, 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975, 1977, 1995 by The Lockman Foundation)

But I am speaking to you who are Gentiles. Inasmuch then as (A)I am an apostle of Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

And again, most clearly, in Galatians 2:7-9 (ibid)

7But on the contrary, seeing that I had been (P)entrusted with the (Q)gospel to the uncircumcised, just as (R)Peter had been to the circumcised

8(for He who effectually worked for Peter in his (S)apostleship to the circumcised effectually worked for me also to the Gentiles),

9and recognizing (T)the grace that had been given to me, (U)James and (V)Cephas and John, who were (W)reputed to be (X)pillars, gave to me and (Y)Barnabas the (Z)right hand of fellowship, so that we might (AA)go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.

In Galatians 2:11-14, Paul "Opposed [Peter] to his face" over Peter's own hypocritical adherence to Judaizing behavior:

Peter (Cephas) Opposed by Paul
11But when (AC)Cephas came to (AD)Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned.
12For prior to the coming of certain men from (AE)James, he used to (AF)eat with the Gentiles; but when they came, he began to withdraw and hold himself aloof, (AG)fearing the party of the circumcision.

13The rest of the Jews joined him in hypocrisy, with the result that even (AH)Barnabas was carried away by their hypocrisy.

14But when I saw that they (AI)were not straightforward about (AJ)the truth of the gospel, I said to (AK)Cephas in the presence of all, "If you, being a Jew, (AL)live like the Gentiles and not like the Jews, how is it that you compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?

Now, I do not study these documents in the Greek, but in translation. You can tell me if there is something to the translation which distorts the meaning of the documents, but it looks as if Peter has a mission to the Jews, and Paul to the Gentiles. It also looks like Paul "won this one," and swayed Peter to abandon his previous stance of "compel(ling) the Gentiles to live like Jews." I'll also be glad to talk about these passages in other versions of the same texts.

But I will drop the Peter argument here, and move on, since this post is almost certainly over the limit... I will call point 1 conceded in part, but also consider it established that Paul affected some change in Peter regarding his identification with Judaizers within Christianity.

Moving on to#2 in post 2!
 
...I believe you are very incorrect claiming that part of Matthew's great commission is missing. Could you please provide the textual varient codes from the manuscripts that have the missing parts? What we can do is dig up that manuscript information and see how or why it is missing...

I'm again going to concede that I do not read Greek koine, or any other kind of Greek. There is a great discussion of the "sudden" end of Mark in the Greek after 16:8, on the wikipedia link below. I am fascinated, but I want to stick to the main premise.

But I'll give you what I've essentially read and repeated -

The particular passage is Mark 16. Once again, I'll give you a wikipedia link on what the scholars say about this bit.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mark_16

The concensus is that there are a lot of preexistent resurrection stories representing different traditions, which are tacked on later. One such story involves the Great Commission (that is, not just to save the "lost sheep of Israel," as mentioned to Matthew, but to save EVERYBODY)...

Mark 16:9-20 seems not to be original. These bits do not appear in the codex vaticanus and the codex sinaiticus, the oldest extent texts of the Christian bible. Further, in one of them, a long blank page follows 16:8. The thinking is that an ending was either lost, or else planned but not written. Again, this is a concensus of scholars, not believers, based on evidence of less importance to the believer; after all, the Great Commission appears elsewhere as well.

Codex Sinaiticus (London, Brit. Libr., Add. 43725; Gregory-Aland no. א (Aleph) or 01)

The Codex Vaticanus (The Vatican, Bibl. Vat., Vat. gr. 1209; Gregory-Aland no. B or 03)

These are the two oldest manuscripts of the entire Christian addition to the bible (the "New Testament"), and date from the fourth century, so if Mark 16:9-20 date from after these two manuscripts, these passages may be very late additions indeed.

Try looking these up via various sources; as I said, I don't read Greek, but I am also not finding this information to be controversial. But the thing is, the believer can say, oh so what, missing pages.

But then again, it's a bit of a coincidence they're both missing the particular part of Mark that is missing.

Points 3 and 4 will have to wait until sometime tomorrow -- I am supposed to work for a living!

PFnV
 
Predator, the learning is mutual. I basically studied the gospels way more closely than Acts, and you are correct, I read more about Acts than of it, both prior to and after your post. But of course, I'll hang on to a vestige of a point regarding Peter. I don't think of this as a personality based schism, rather more a dearth of knowledge about whether there was an uncontested early Christian mainstream. "On this rock [Peter]," Jesus will build his church; yet it is Paul who seems to establish the Christian system of belief. But one point at a time...

1) Conceded, again without reading, that the story says it is a whole family of gentiles. I will accept for the sake of argument, that for the believer, the story establishes that Peter's viewpoint came around to be the equivalent of Paul's, to wit, that the Christian message should be equally offered to and established for all, regardless of origin. There's also no real reason to believe Peter opposed this decision, since during the lifetimes of Peter and Paul, Peter was at least supposed to have the last word, and had Peter actively opposed this decision, we would know it.

Although the story may or may not be embellishment, I do not say that Peter could not conceive of gentiles converting. I do think he left it primarily to Paul, and given these two items of information, I could well imagine that propping up Peter's being "on board", especially in light of Paul's wrath against "Judaizers" in Galatians, was important by the time of Acts, which again, is dated anywhere from 80-200 ce (with most scholars siding with 80.) I think the letters are the earliest bits we have, at least the ones that have a consensus on Pauline authorship (such as Galatians.) More importantly, Acts may come after the decisions made at Javneh (Jamnia,) possibly at a "Council of Jamnia," which essentially declared Christianity un-Jewish, thereby making Peter's putative fondness for converting gentiles much more necessary. I also checked Peter's dates, and only then realized that at least according to tradition, Paul never attained church primacy. The post was Peter's until both died, by some accounts on the same day.

So I'll drop the use of Peter to talk about the early church, and add a mea culpa. He was in charge, yet Acts lurches over from Peter to Paul halfway through; We have the story you cite, but we also have Paul as the key figure who preaches against Judaizing within Christianity.

Paul refers to himself specifically as an apostle to the gentiles:

Romans 11:13 (New American Standard Bible, Copyright © 1960, 1962, 1963, 1968, 1971, 1972, 1973, 1975, 1977, 1995 by The Lockman Foundation)

But I am speaking to you who are Gentiles. Inasmuch then as (A)I am an apostle of Gentiles, I magnify my ministry,

And again, most clearly, in Galatians 2:7-9 (ibid)

7But on the contrary, seeing that I had been (P)entrusted with the (Q)gospel to the uncircumcised, just as (R)Peter had been to the circumcised

8(for He who effectually worked for Peter in his (S)apostleship to the circumcised effectually worked for me also to the Gentiles),

9and recognizing (T)the grace that had been given to me, (U)James and (V)Cephas and John, who were (W)reputed to be (X)pillars, gave to me and (Y)Barnabas the (Z)right hand of fellowship, so that we might (AA)go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.

In Galatians 2:11-14, Paul "Opposed [Peter] to his face" over Peter's own hypocritical adherence to Judaizing behavior:

Peter (Cephas) Opposed by Paul
11But when (AC)Cephas came to (AD)Antioch, I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned.
12For prior to the coming of certain men from (AE)James, he used to (AF)eat with the Gentiles; but when they came, he began to withdraw and hold himself aloof, (AG)fearing the party of the circumcision.

13The rest of the Jews joined him in hypocrisy, with the result that even (AH)Barnabas was carried away by their hypocrisy.

14But when I saw that they (AI)were not straightforward about (AJ)the truth of the gospel, I said to (AK)Cephas in the presence of all, "If you, being a Jew, (AL)live like the Gentiles and not like the Jews, how is it that you compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?

Now, I do not study these documents in the Greek, but in translation. You can tell me if there is something to the translation which distorts the meaning of the documents, but it looks as if Peter has a mission to the Jews, and Paul to the Gentiles. It also looks like Paul "won this one," and swayed Peter to abandon his previous stance of "compel(ling) the Gentiles to live like Jews." I'll also be glad to talk about these passages in other versions of the same texts.

But I will drop the Peter argument here, and move on, since this post is almost certainly over the limit... I will call point 1 conceded in part, but also consider it established that Paul affected some change in Peter regarding his identification with Judaizers within Christianity.

Moving on to#2 in post 2!

As far as Matthew 16 "Upon this rock" there are so many different interpretations that have merit.

Some would point out that Peter was then the first Pope (married by the way). The text does not claim the papact at all. Was Peter used to start the church? Yup sure was in Acts 2. Peter preached a sermon that led to thousands of conversions and established the church in Jerusalem. The Bible never records Peter being in charge of this congregation though.

Some would say that Jesus was referring to the statement that Peter made. "You are the Messiah the Son of the Living God." Is that pausible? Yes it is very possible because what was the Christian faith founded upon? It was Jesus as the Messiah. What makes the Peter/Rock usage difficult is the language. It was spoken in Aramaic and writen in Koine Greek. There is no doubt that there is a word play, but Petros (Peter) is not equivalent to Petra (rock). This seems to point out that the rock is not specifically Peter.

Some would say that the reference refers to Peter's position as am apostle because Ephesians 2:20 claims that the apostles were the foundation to the church. Can't argue with that.

Just be careful not to get caught into thinking that one man was responsible for the doctrine of the church Peter or Paul. This is a very narrow idea. There was a reason Jesus chose 12 disciples and replaced Judas with Paul. All were comissioned to build the church. No one man had authority (exousia) over another.
 
I'm again going to concede that I do not read Greek koine, or any other kind of Greek. There is a great discussion of the "sudden" end of Mark in the Greek after 16:8, on the wikipedia link below. I am fascinated, but I want to stick to the main premise.

But I'll give you what I've essentially read and repeated -

The particular passage is Mark 16. Once again, I'll give you a wikipedia link on what the scholars say about this bit.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mark_16

The concensus is that there are a lot of preexistent resurrection stories representing different traditions, which are tacked on later. One such story involves the Great Commission (that is, not just to save the "lost sheep of Israel," as mentioned to Matthew, but to save EVERYBODY)...

Mark 16:9-20 seems not to be original. These bits do not appear in the codex vaticanus and the codex sinaiticus, the oldest extent texts of the Christian bible. Further, in one of them, a long blank page follows 16:8. The thinking is that an ending was either lost, or else planned but not written. Again, this is a concensus of scholars, not believers, based on evidence of less importance to the believer; after all, the Great Commission appears elsewhere as well.

Codex Sinaiticus (London, Brit. Libr., Add. 43725; Gregory-Aland no. ? (Aleph) or 01)

The Codex Vaticanus (The Vatican, Bibl. Vat., Vat. gr. 1209; Gregory-Aland no. B or 03)

These are the two oldest manuscripts of the entire Christian addition to the bible (the "New Testament"), and date from the fourth century, so if Mark 16:9-20 date from after these two manuscripts, these passages may be very late additions indeed.

Try looking these up via various sources; as I said, I don't read Greek, but I am also not finding this information to be controversial. But the thing is, the believer can say, oh so what, missing pages.

But then again, it's a bit of a coincidence they're both missing the particular part of Mark that is missing.

Points 3 and 4 will have to wait until sometime tomorrow -- I am supposed to work for a living!

PFnV

Yes I am farmiliar with the debate on Mark not Matthew. You need to be careful with your use of certain words. Sites like Wikepedia do not know Christian signifigance to words. For example, the word "manuscript" when used in conjunction to the Bible refers to the original leather scroll that the write penned upon. We do not have in our hands today once single original scroll. So the texts of Siniaticus and Vaticanus are not manuscripts. They are hand written copies of the original manuscripts bassed down, copied over, annotated though the centuries. They are very similar even though the come from different parts of the world. Today, we have about 5000 copies of manuscripts that we can compare. Using textual criticism, we can accuratly see what the original text said to within 100 years of its penning. That is pretty impressive. That means that the Greek and Hebrew Bibles that we have in our hands today are essentially the same as the first century Christians. As far as Mark 16, some would claim that it was lengthened by the church because the oldest copies of manuscripts do not contain that ending. Does it really matter? Are any doctrines or teachings affected by it? No not at all. If someome wants to thow it out, no big deal. The other Gospels clearly have the content that there is no criticism on. If someone wants to keep it, good for them. The other Gospels say essentially the same thing so no big deal.
 
Yes I am farmiliar with the debate on Mark not Matthew. You need to be careful with your use of certain words. Sites like Wikepedia do not know Christian signifigance to words. For example, the word "manuscript" when used in conjunction to the Bible refers to the original leather scroll that the write penned upon. We do not have in our hands today once single original scroll. So the texts of Siniaticus and Vaticanus are not manuscripts. They are hand written copies of the original manuscripts bassed down, copied over, annotated though the centuries. They are very similar even though the come from different parts of the world. Today, we have about 5000 copies of manuscripts that we can compare. Using textual criticism, we can accuratly see what the original text said to within 100 years of its penning. That is pretty impressive. That means that the Greek and Hebrew Bibles that we have in our hands today are essentially the same as the first century Christians. As far as Mark 16, some would claim that it was lengthened by the church because the oldest copies of manuscripts do not contain that ending. Does it really matter? Are any doctrines or teachings affected by it? No not at all. If someome wants to thow it out, no big deal. The other Gospels clearly have the content that there is no criticism on. If someone wants to keep it, good for them. The other Gospels say essentially the same thing so no big deal.

Given that the codices mentioned are from the fourth century, I do doubt that they were typed or printed on presses; but to avoid running afoul of the notion that a "manuscript" is distinguished by scroll form as opposed to book form, we can call the general term "document," the leafed-book form "codex," the original "original," a scroll a "scroll," and a fragment a "fragment."

I'll also stipulate that if in Christian circles, "manuscript" does not mean "handwritten," but "handwritten scroll," this likely devolves from scholarly convention, and I'm just misusing the jargon. So I'll try my best to just excise "manuscript" entirely or to use it in the narrowest sense. I'm not a professional, just an interested layman.

So - since the codices mentioned are the two earliest complete, extent "New Testaments", we are still in a quandary as to the first appearance of what is now Mark 16:9-20, and the first inclusion of Mark 16:9-20. I'll let you do the lifting on this one, because it's work time.

So:

1) what are the earliest extent sources for Mark 16:9 - 20, as a complete chunk, written together?
2) what are the earliest fragments one can identify indisputably as one of the verses within Mark 16:9 - 20?
3) Have I erred? Is there an earlier extent inclusion of Mark 16:9 -20 in a complete "New Testament," somewhere other than in the codices mentioned?

I do suspect the notion of a textual criticism that does not acknowledge that something odd is going on when the very extent documents seem to conclude with a lurch and a blank space -- yet is able to precisely date a passage that is not yet included in the text.

If a written passage preexists the canonical acceptance of the passage, however, that too is a possible conclusion. Let me know what you find (or remember,) and I'll return to this later tonight.

PFnV

I still owe you on points 3 and 4.
 
"

1) what are the earliest extent sources for Mark 16:9 - 20, as a complete chunk, written together?
2) what are the earliest fragments one can identify indisputably as one of the verses within Mark 16:9 - 20?
3) Have I erred? Is there an earlier extent inclusion of Mark 16:9 -20 in a complete "New Testament," somewhere other than in the codices mentioned?

I do suspect the notion of a textual criticism that does not acknowledge that something odd is going on when the very extent documents seem to conclude with a lurch and a blank space -- yet is able to precisely date a passage that is not yet included in the text.

If a written passage preexists the canonical acceptance of the passage, however, that too is a possible conclusion. Let me know what you find (or remember,) and I'll return to this later tonight.

PFnV

I still owe you on points 3 and 4.

As far as the Mark passage, it just is not relevant to me. I believe a good book I once read that touched on it was:

http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-New-Testament-D-Carson/dp/customer-reviews/0310238595

I do not usderstand you suspicion on textual criticism. By its very nature it attemps to find and apply the original text.
 
As far as the Mark passage, it just is not relevant to me. I believe a good book I once read that touched on it was:

http://www.amazon.com/Introduction-New-Testament-D-Carson/dp/customer-reviews/0310238595

I do not usderstand you suspicion on textual criticism. By its very nature it attemps to find and apply the original text.

But in point 2 of your 4 points, you say I am very incorrect about it -- so prior to searching it was significant, but now it is not?

I couch this in this way, because it helps explain my problem with textual criticism vis a vis historical criticism. Textual criticism aims to take two or more dissimilar texts of the same verse, and coming to some decision as to which best approximates the imagined original written document. Its main goal is the recovery of an original text we no longer have; its progress can only ever refine the fidelity of these copies; and, as in the case of historical criticism, its ultimate answer can not be known, barring an astounding archaeological find. Scribal and translation errors are only part of the story, however.

Textual criticism assumes that context, politics, agendas, and human drives do not exist in any individual who creates a written document which he intends for religious use. (By the way, I have yet to find the word "manuscript" confined to "scroll," as you suggest... I don't want to harp on it, but its use as "written document" would have been handy here!)

Anyway, we have in the Mark example a case in which it appears evident that in at least this gospel, traditions were incorporated to fashion a "new" written ending, some centuries after the assumed completion of Mark. Of course, within the same general school of thought, one can conjecture other reasons that the canon eventually came to include an ending to Mark not found in the earliest complete Christian bibles, but the evidence points to late addition, in my own humble opinion.

This in turn points to a premise of historical criticism: that the books were originally recorded, and sometimes subsequently redacted, in a process involving quite human authors and scribes. Additionally, their works were grouped by quite human editors. And it is my belief that in their recording of known stories, possibly in their invention of events that did not happen, and in their selection or rejection of those stories among the known thought to be true, those involved in the creation of sacred texts fulfil human agendas.

Now, I am not a "radical" in my consideration of biblical criticism. I do not, for example, believe that Jesus was never crucified, or never lived, or any of those arguments. I do believe he was a historical figure, however, as were the early church leaders.

And to quote Nietzche, "in every living thing I have observed the will to power."

The believer may argue the unimportance or prima facie error of historical criticism, but to the unbeliever (and to certain believers as well,) historical criticism adds a whole suite of tools to those used in textual criticism.

But it's a bit grittier... it asks "who gets what out of this passage?" at every turn, which could strike some as blasphemous. The trouble is that what we see in the bible is what the bible's authors want us to see, and it is not only scribal error that can distort the truth of events as they happened.

The upside, of course, is that historical criticism aims for great rewards (for example, most likely scenarios of the turns early Christianity took,) therefore showing Christianity to us as Jesus' first followers understood it, and even offering insight on the life of Jesus himself. The downside is that historical criticism does away with the point of view that the bible as it now exists, is the final word on these historical events -- in other words, it puts the truth of how a religion developed above the crystallized form of a canon. Historical criticism has been applied to other religions as well, of course, by the way. This is one reason I am a Reform, rather than Orthodox, Jew. (Although it is true that talmudic Judaism paid a great deal of attention to the context of a given biblical passage, at least from internal biblical sources, in its interpretations.)

I'll attempt to get to your points 3 or 4 tonight or over the weekend, having now come to some accomodation (I think) on both points 1 and 2.

By the way, thank you for the link... this discussion does not necessarily point me to that particular work, but I am now a little excited about another possibility -- I am currently in a Masters degree program, in another field entirely, and as part of that program I have access to university libraries. I am hoping I can get to the Journal of Biblical Archaeology through their links... if in fact it's still even called that!

Thanks again for the invigorating discussion,

PFnV
 
But in point 2 of your 4 points, you say I am very incorrect about it -- so prior to searching it was significant, but now it is not?

I couch this in this way, because it helps explain my problem with textual criticism vis a vis historical criticism. Textual criticism aims to take two or more dissimilar texts of the same verse, and coming to some decision as to which best approximates the imagined original written document. Its main goal is the recovery of an original text we no longer have; its progress can only ever refine the fidelity of these copies; and, as in the case of historical criticism, its ultimate answer can not be known, barring an astounding archaeological find. Scribal and translation errors are only part of the story, however.

Textual criticism assumes that context, politics, agendas, and human drives do not exist in any individual who creates a written document which he intends for religious use. (By the way, I have yet to find the word "manuscript" confined to "scroll," as you suggest... I don't want to harp on it, but its use as "written document" would have been handy here!)

Anyway, we have in the Mark example a case in which it appears evident that in at least this gospel, traditions were incorporated to fashion a "new" written ending, some centuries after the assumed completion of Mark. Of course, within the same general school of thought, one can conjecture other reasons that the canon eventually came to include an ending to Mark not found in the earliest complete Christian bibles, but the evidence points to late addition, in my own humble opinion.

This in turn points to a premise of historical criticism: that the books were originally recorded, and sometimes subsequently redacted, in a process involving quite human authors and scribes. Additionally, their works were grouped by quite human editors. And it is my belief that in their recording of known stories, possibly in their invention of events that did not happen, and in their selection or rejection of those stories among the known thought to be true, those involved in the creation of sacred texts fulfil human agendas.

Now, I am not a "radical" in my consideration of biblical criticism. I do not, for example, believe that Jesus was never crucified, or never lived, or any of those arguments. I do believe he was a historical figure, however, as were the early church leaders.

And to quote Nietzche, "in every living thing I have observed the will to power."

The believer may argue the unimportance or prima facie error of historical criticism, but to the unbeliever (and to certain believers as well,) historical criticism adds a whole suite of tools to those used in textual criticism.

But it's a bit grittier... it asks "who gets what out of this passage?" at every turn, which could strike some as blasphemous. The trouble is that what we see in the bible is what the bible's authors want us to see, and it is not only scribal error that can distort the truth of events as they happened.

The upside, of course, is that historical criticism aims for great rewards (for example, most likely scenarios of the turns early Christianity took,) therefore showing Christianity to us as Jesus' first followers understood it, and even offering insight on the life of Jesus himself. The downside is that historical criticism does away with the point of view that the bible as it now exists, is the final word on these historical events -- in other words, it puts the truth of how a religion developed above the crystallized form of a canon. Historical criticism has been applied to other religions as well, of course, by the way. This is one reason I am a Reform, rather than Orthodox, Jew. (Although it is true that talmudic Judaism paid a great deal of attention to the context of a given biblical passage, at least from internal biblical sources, in its interpretations.)

I'll attempt to get to your points 3 or 4 tonight or over the weekend, having now come to some accomodation (I think) on both points 1 and 2.

By the way, thank you for the link... this discussion does not necessarily point me to that particular work, but I am now a little excited about another possibility -- I am currently in a Masters degree program, in another field entirely, and as part of that program I have access to university libraries. I am hoping I can get to the Journal of Biblical Archaeology through their links... if in fact it's still even called that!

Thanks again for the invigorating discussion,

PFnV

If your were incorrect I pointed out the correction within my previous post. There is no need for me to restate something I have already done. I do not feel that you have raised a legitimate point to counter the correction.

Possible the reason that you cannot find any reference to the use of the word manuscripts is because you are using secular sources. Wikepedia, as you recognized, is not exactly a manual of church history or the history of Christianity. What textual criticisms have you read? Where are you getting your information from? I point you to an interesting source that Bruce Metzger's New Testament commentary on NT textual Criticism.

One particular view that you are overlooking the mass of copies that we have today. There are are over 5000 copies of the original manuscripts dating back to within 100 years of the original penning. To insert that we cannot put these texts together and come up with an accurate portrayal of the original may be misguided. Within the +5000 copies that we have, there are approximatly 375,000 differences. That is 375,000 portion that could be one verse up to 50 verses. Your Mark example would be one variant. If we take away spelling differences (color, colour), word order (Word order has no relevance in Greek), we are actually left with about 500 variations. None of these have anything to do with church doctrine. That is pretty amazing for a New Testament that began 2000 years ago.

There is nothing wrong with a historical/grammitcal hermenuetic, but it can be dangerous if it goes overboard.

One other option that needs to be considered is what the Bible claims by itself. It makes some very large claims as to its identity. Can it be right and wrong at the same time? Can something that is used as a moral standard lie?
 
If your were incorrect I pointed out the correction within my previous post. There is no need for me to restate something I have already done. I do not feel that you have raised a legitimate point to counter the correction.

Possible the reason that you cannot find any reference to the use of the word manuscripts is because you are using secular sources. Wikepedia, as you recognized, is not exactly a manual of church history or the history of Christianity. What textual criticisms have you read? Where are you getting your information from? I point you to an interesting source that Bruce Metzger's New Testament commentary on NT textual Criticism.

One particular view that you are overlooking the mass of copies that we have today. There are are over 5000 copies of the original manuscripts dating back to within 100 years of the original penning. To insert that we cannot put these texts together and come up with an accurate portrayal of the original may be misguided. Within the +5000 copies that we have, there are approximatly 375,000 differences. That is 375,000 portion that could be one verse up to 50 verses. Your Mark example would be one variant. If we take away spelling differences (color, colour), word order (Word order has no relevance in Greek), we are actually left with about 500 variations. None of these have anything to do with church doctrine. That is pretty amazing for a New Testament that began 2000 years ago.

There is nothing wrong with a historical/grammitcal hermenuetic, but it can be dangerous if it goes overboard.

One other option that needs to be considered is what the Bible claims by itself. It makes some very large claims as to its identity. Can it be right and wrong at the same time? Can something that is used as a moral standard lie?

It's not that I'm not coming across the word "manuscript," I'm just not finding it in as a synonym for "original source document." We can use this in-house Christian convention, if that's what it is.

Let me give you a little bit on my background, to give you an idea of the reading I've done (which I do not glorify, but must state to be somewhat beyond Wikipedia.)

At the College of William and Mary in the 1980s, as an English major, I found myself filling electives repeatedly with Religion classes. I was particularly drawn to classes on Judaism and Christianity, but also Buddhism and significant contemporary texts written from various religious perspectives. One day I realized I had most of the requirements for a double major in Religion, so I pursued and earned that BA as well.

Now I want to be clear: I was not a star pupil. My life was a random assortment of events. I sometimes burned with interest, and other times overslept on exam days.

But I do remember a good number of professors for their impact on me. One visiting professor of mine went on to be the first head of the U.S. Holocaust museum; from him, I learned about the Holocaust and the history of Anti-Semitism. Another, oddly enough, was a former SS man, now devoted to the study of early Christianity. Yet another somehow landed in the Religion department, for his interest in contemporary religious-inspired texts, and the influence of church architecture on the liturgy... I remember him best as a humorous and kind person, and the most effective teacher of academic writing I've ever learned from.

Most germane to this discussion was a visiting professor named EP Sanders. The name of the seminar class I took from him was Jesus and Judaism. I found later that this was also the name of a book he published shortly after his stay at W&M, which was conceived prior to his teaching of the seminar.

I've not gone on to learn the necessary Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic, and German (so much of the field of historical criticism has been written in German, it's almost as required as the ancient languages.) I have not gone on any biblical archaelogy digs, and I can not say I have kept up with the field. I've likely forgotten more than I remember, and only barely scratched the surface in the first place.

In terms of textual criticism, I can do searches and not recognize a single name. This tells me that, as my memory suggested, we concentrated much more on "higher" (AKA, historical) criticism.

Within that discipline, I remember Shweitzer's Quest of the Historical Jesus, Renan's Life of Jesus (sort of a comparison text, via which we could see what Shweitzer was doing in his "survey" of historical criticism,) Bruno Bauer (one of the "radicals",) Willilam Wrede on the "Messianic Secret" in Mark, and Rudolph Bultmann, on the Synoptic Gospels.

Metzger's a new name to me, but as I said, I am no scholar. And I do thank you for the suggestion.

As to the 5,000 "copies of the original manuscripts dating back to within 100 years of the original penning," I think it's debateable that we can necessarily reach the goal of reconstructing the document, provided these are complete copies. But when we say things like "copies of the original manuscripts," I have many questions:

1) copies of biblical materials of all sorts? Are extrabiblical materials included (such as early church documents?)

2) My assumption is that a great number of these are fragments, as opposed to complete copies of, for example, existing "books" of the bible. Is this the case?

3) "Dating from 100 years after the originals were penned" - let's take the Mark example. Do you have a complete fragment in mind that completes the gospel of Mark, as we have it in the canon as it exists today? If not, it is evident that these materials have been penned over a long enough period, that some impressively dated "from 100 years after the original" documents, may not even predate the fourth century.

However, the point is taken: We have a great number of copies and copies of copies, and having these materials in such abundance, we should therefore be able to guess which variance is correct, because of the sheer number of fragments and variances. Although from a systems standpoint this is logically flawed (i.e., we could be more certain with a single text, and the possibilities multiply as the texts do,) I'll accept your point that we really are only dealing with trivialities in textual criticism, for the sake of argument.

But one brief background check, and I apologize if it seems rude or "challenging" -

How long did you study Greek? I want to determine the usefulness of the statement "word order has no relevance in Greek." I can believe that the relevance of word order is less crucial, or that the significance of word order are different than in English (on that, of course, one would be almost certain.) But to argue that there is no significance whatsoever in word order in Greek, is to argue that Greek is a language without syntax. This strikes me as contrary to what I know of linguistics. Do you read the Greek these documents are written in fluently?

At any rate, I will stipulate at the moment that textual criticism is a successful endeavor; i.e., that its use is resulting in more and more faithful renditions, but that the great number of copies have been faithfully translated in the best "fair copy" we will be able to get. (stipulate but not accept, to move on to historical criticism.)

Here are my interests: I'm less interested in the notion that a textual variance signifies a resulting contaminated copy of the canon as set some hundreds of years after the life of Jesus, and more interested in how preexisting sources were cobbled together into the "books" textual criticism attempts to reconstruct. There were original materials and accounts - what were they? Can we re-find them? Can we know what Jesus said and did?

Jesus did live and teach; but what, exactly, was it that he taught? What were the settings for his sayings? Are all the recorded sayings authentic, or do some serve the interests of the Church (in pacifying Roman authorities in the time of the second revolt,) or even the interests of establishing authenticity (as in the case of things Jesus did and said "that the prophecy would be fulfilled," in the words of the narrative voice?)

Feeding into, stemming from, and illuminating these questions:

How do the synoptics differ, and why? What do we make of the "other" gospel, John? Was Luke the physician you believe him to be, or was Luke someone else -- perhaps, as has been suggested, a woman (to get into the realm of guaranteed controversy.)

Why are the apostles held in fairly high regard in Acts, and are portrayed as such a gang of numbnuts in many of the gospels? Was there a time in which Jesus was regarded as achieving messiahship upon death, but being human in life, hence the "messianic secret" in Mark? If not, what is the explanation of the secrecy of Jesus in that gospel? What of John's quasi-gnostic character? Which of Paul's letters are Pauls, and which are from a Pauline "school" -- or are all of the letters authentic?

Have we found Q, in the Gospel of Thomas? (The sayings gospel, not the infancy gospel)? If so, what to do with the discarded sayings? How do we regard their authenticity, or the authenticity of the sayings they contradict in the likely later canonical gospels?

This is the fun stuff -- what people actually remembered Jesus having said, and who "invented", when sayings between canonical and non-canonical dispute one another. And even better... what did Jesus think himself to be?

The early Church feeds into all this, of course, but in an ex post facto way.
Thanks,

PFnV
 
I need to amend - in the previous post, late at night, I babbled out... "..was a former SS man..." when, in fact, I do not know what this individual did during the war, though rumor had it he was on the bad side of it in some way, though he could hardly be old enough to be an "ss man...". For all I know this guy was a victim of the authorities, persecuted for his beliefs... anyway I did not name him by name, and so didn't put this recollection through a very rigorous process before blurting out rumor as if it were fact.

Thanks
 
Last edited:
I need to amend - in the previous post, late at night, I babbled out... "..was a former SS man..." when, in fact, I do not know what this individual did during the war, though rumor had it he was on the bad side of it in some way, though he could hardly be old enough to be an "ss man...". For all I know this guy was a victim of the authorities, persecuted for his beliefs... anyway I did not name him by name, and so didn't put this recollection through a very rigorous process before blurting out rumor as if it were fact.

Thanks

I do not have enough time to reply, I will try on monday.
 
Predator, I already did the retraction on the "supposed SS guy," so on Monday, if possible, it would be great if we kept to the remainder of the characterization. The individual in question has done nothing but good things to my knowledge, and I do not have any knowledge of his involvement in anything bad during the war. I just caught myself blurting a half-remembered half-rumor as if it were his bio, and could not let it slip, whether I named him or not.

Thanks, and talk to you (about the extensive rest of this!) on Monday.

PFnV
 
God:
If there is "A God" when we die we will know it to be true.

If there is "No God" when we die we will never know it.

Religion:
Could it be that God was invented by some very intelligent people to try and keep the "whack job murdering thieving humans" in line.

Where did the "Big Bang" come from?

Who invented "Eyes"

Why do we have "To Eat"

Why do we have "To Eat Other Animals"

Why does having sex feel better than being hit by a car?

Why?
 
God:
Why does having sex feel better than being hit by a car?

Why?

Because otherwise autoerotica would be such a confusing term...
 
Hey there, Predator... I do not know whether you wanted to dump this thread, or whether we both just got busy and (gasp!) all wrapped up in the playoffs, back when this one was active.

"Just go away" is a perfectly legit alternative too ;)

PFnV
 


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