Don't i remember that the reason why the future years of contracts are binding on players ... but not on the clubs; hence, "cuts" ... is that all those contracts occurred under a collective bargaining agreement? Hence labor law permitted them, as an exception to the general law of contracts. Does it not follow that ... beginning when the CBA expires, after '07 ... contracts will be equally binding on the owners? Any player cut ... will be entitled to be paid the remaining value of his contract. Correct this, if i'm wrong.