My azzhole ex son in law, took over the house he that he had bought with my daughter. Somehow he got the house and she and the kids had to move out. Fast forward about 5 years, and there have been notices in the paper regarding foreclosure.. as it became common knowledge that he was in arrears of about $68.000 and had not paid a thing. This morning reading the paper, and checking out the Real Estate Transactions and it read... Azzhole ex-son in law and PNC bank sold the property for $286,000 to PNC Bank. He remains in the house, my question is what does it mean??.. and how can a bank pay more than the original value of the home as the purchase price was $250,000.. My guess it is creative bookeeping for the bank, to minimize their loss on paper and some how they rolled all the arrearments into the purchase price... does that sound right???? How can he stay in the house?? Is this standard language for a foreclosure??