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Old 10-27-2008, 11:52 AM   #1
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Default Rule Question - Just Curious

First, let's get the legal stuff out of the way:

1) Yes, I know the Patriots won the game.
2) Yes, I understand the play I'm going to ask about had no bearing on the out come.

This is just a general question for my own edumacation

The play was the Bulger pass that bounced up off a players helmet, then was almost picked by Sanders (I think) only to have it bounce off him and then ultimately caught by the Ram WR (Hall, I think).

My question is, should a flag have been thrown for an ineligible receiver (O Lineman) touching the ball first? I'm pretty sure I've seen that call made before when the QB makes a pass that hits a lineman.

Was the Rams player that got hit the TE maybe?

Again, just curious if anyone can clear that up.



Thanks!!
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Old 10-27-2008, 11:54 AM   #2
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Default Re: Rule Question - Just Curious

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedyB54 View Post
First, let's get the legal stuff out of the way:

1) Yes, I know the Patriots won the game.
2) Yes, I understand the play I'm going to ask about had no bearing on the out come.

This is just a general question for my own edumacation

The play was the Bulger pass that bounced up off a players helmet, then was almost picked by Sanders (I think) only to have it bounce off him and then ultimately caught by the Ram WR (Hall, I think).

My question is, should a flag have been thrown for an ineligible receiver (O Lineman) touching the ball first? I'm pretty sure I've seen that call made before when the QB makes a pass that hits a lineman.

Was the Rams player that got hit the TE maybe?

Again, just curious if anyone can clear that up.



Thanks!!
No, unless QB intended to throw the ball at his helmet.
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Old 10-27-2008, 12:00 PM   #3
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Default Re: Rule Question - Just Curious

Quote:
Originally Posted by TedyB54 View Post
First, let's get the legal stuff out of the way:

1) Yes, I know the Patriots won the game.
2) Yes, I understand the play I'm going to ask about had no bearing on the out come.

This is just a general question for my own edumacation

The play was the Bulger pass that bounced up off a players helmet, then was almost picked by Sanders (I think) only to have it bounce off him and then ultimately caught by the Ram WR (Hall, I think).

My question is, should a flag have been thrown for an ineligible receiver (O Lineman) touching the ball first? I'm pretty sure I've seen that call made before when the QB makes a pass that hits a lineman.

Was the Rams player that got hit the TE maybe?

Again, just curious if anyone can clear that up.



Thanks!!

If the play had happened last year then yes, it would have been a penalty. The NFL in thier boundless wisdom changed the rule so that if the OL is hit in the back with a pass (as in it's an accident) it is no longer a penalty.
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Old 10-27-2008, 12:02 PM   #4
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Default Re: Rule Question - Just Curious

I think that the refs, thought that a Patriot player must have touched the ball first, other than than.... You are right!

The ball hit the helmet of Oralndo Pace, who is an ineligible reciever, the rules states nothing about intended receiver.
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Old 10-27-2008, 12:08 PM   #5
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Default Re: Rule Question - Just Curious

Quote:
Originally Posted by SpiderFox53 View Post
If the play had happened last year then yes, it would have been a penalty. The NFL in thier boundless wisdom changed the rule so that if the OL is hit in the back with a pass (as in it's an accident) it is no longer a penalty.

Ahhh...ok, got it.

Thanks for the info.
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